26 Jan 2026 9:50 am
How come, whenever the Ponzi scheme known as the "American stock market" marches higher, it's the result of "free marketz," "innovation," and "entrepreneurship," but whenever the Ponzi finally implodes, it's due to the fault of [pick your favorite scapegoat from below]:
1) Market manipulation by "market makers"
2) An unaccomodating Fed (By the way, this is false - every time the market crashed by 30% or more since 1999, the Fed was in the process of LOWERING rates)
3) The federAL GUBMINT
4) One of the two political parties
5) Some arcane policy nobody cared about or heard about until grifters / liars brought it up
("But...but...it was the ComMuniTy ReiNveStMent AcT")
Has it occurred to retarded azzwipes that the market moving higher is the actual manipulation (majority of the post GFC years had QE, we had like 3 years of QT) and the "collapse" is organic market action?
Edit: Minor grammar / syntax
1) Market manipulation by "market makers"
2) An unaccomodating Fed (By the way, this is false - every time the market crashed by 30% or more since 1999, the Fed was in the process of LOWERING rates)
3) The federAL GUBMINT
4) One of the two political parties
5) Some arcane policy nobody cared about or heard about until grifters / liars brought it up
("But...but...it was the ComMuniTy ReiNveStMent AcT")
Has it occurred to retarded azzwipes that the market moving higher is the actual manipulation (majority of the post GFC years had QE, we had like 3 years of QT) and the "collapse" is organic market action?
Edit: Minor grammar / syntax